1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
Showing posts with label CCNA4. Show all posts
Showing posts with label CCNA4. Show all posts
Saturday, July 23, 2011
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)
1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)
1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
Sunday, July 3, 2011
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)
1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)
1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1
1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM
4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
analog dialup
5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM
4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
analog dialup
5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3
1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2
1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.
4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.
5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.
4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.
5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0 100%
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
Sunday, June 19, 2011
CCNA4 FINAL 100/100
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
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