1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]
2. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
155 seconds
3. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
4. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.
6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router
7. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
3
8. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0
9. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.
10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm
11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
only the gateway router
12. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
30
13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
10.0.0.0/8
14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.
15. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1
17. Refer to the output from the show ip route command. What can be concluded from the output of this router command?
There are two equal cost paths to network 1.0.0.0.
18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
debug ip rip
19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
RouterB(config)# no router rip
Sunday, July 31, 2011
CCNA v4 - E2 - Module 4 (100/100)
1. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.
2. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.
2. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table
How the Application Layer Works
In the previous section we reviewed several aspects of the Transport Layer. We learned a great deal of information; covering sockets, ports, TCP, UDP, segments, and datagrams. Now we will take a look at the fourth and final layer of the TCP/IP stack: the Application Layer.
Enable Passwords On Cisco Routers Via Enable Password And Enable Secret
Security is a part of every good technical administrator’s game plan. Luckily the good folks at Cisco have made the task of securitizing a Cisco router fairly straightforward in design- with support given for up to five types of passwords. Taking advantage of these passwords is vital to a network’s internal security, and should be implemented where permitted.
Enable Password – The Most Basic Of Security Features
The two most basic of passwords a Cisco router can provide support for is the enable password and enable secret commands. Depending on the IOS version, administrators will likely only need to setup the enable secret command.
For Cisco routers running IOS versions before version 10.3, enable password is going to be used. It is the outdated version of the two, and we’ll see why it isn’t used in average applications after we enable it. You can enable this basic password following the commands seen below.
Router> enableRouter# config terminalEnter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.Router(config)# enable password mypassword
In this example, mypassword is the new password that is going to be set on the router. Try typing exit and navigate to the privileged mode, as seen below.
Router> enablePassword:
You’ll notice that before we can get into privileged mode, we have to enter the password we set earlier. If you followed the above example, you should be able to input mypassword and press Enter. You are now authenticated for privileged mode!
So why don’t we use the enable password command in most cases? The answer is simple: it’s an outdated format that anyone can have ample opportunity to take advantage of. Try following the below steps and note what you see.
Router# show running-configBuilding configuration…Current configuration : 162 bytes!version 12.2no service password-encryption!hostname Router!!enable password mypassword!
As you can see, anyone can see the password in plain view. This is because it is stored as plain text- no encryption is being used! To help cover this vast security hole, Cisco created the enable secret command. As you can probably guess, it makes use of encryption this time around.
Enable Secret – An Evolved Form Of The Previous Example
Encryption can be a tough subject to tackle. But Cisco has made the process of enabling an encrypted password just as easy as the previous example. In fact, we are only changing one word in the process!
Router#configure terminalEnter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.Router(config)#enable secret mypassword
Note that many routers will alert the user at this point if they have made the enable secret and the enable password values the same in terms of the password. Although the message that results is just a warning, and administrators can indeed set both to the same thing (although this is not recommended as it will almost defeat the purpose of the enable secret command).
Now let’s go back to the very beginning, and try logging back into privileged mode once more. We’ll take a look at the running configuration in the below example.
Router# show running-configBuilding configuration…Current configuration : 209 bytes!version 12.2no service password-encryption!hostname Router!!enable secret 5 $1$mERr$7sOd0mgRuXYhHwfWsV4QZ/enable password mypassword!
Notice how the enable secret password is unreadable, while the outdated command enable password is being displayed in plain view! Obviously, it comes as to no surprise that Cisco decided to do away with the command in order to improve network security.
Closing Comments
We’ve discussed only two of the five different passwords that Cisco allows network administrators to take advantage of. If you’d like to take security a step further, be sure to check out the next section that discusses subjects such as Telnet passwords, console passwords, and even auxiliary passwords!
The Basics of Network Cable Testing
If 90% of all problems in a network are on the Physical Layer, then it isn’t any surprise that cable testing has become quite important in the industry. And although it may sound simple to test a pair of cables for faults, actually troubleshooting wire maps, crosstalk, propagation delay, or insertion loss can be more than headache-worthy. And thus, understanding how to troubleshoot these problems saves time, yet also supplies good information to prevent common mistakes in the future.
How to Avoid Crosstalk
You’ll come to find that the most common mistakes are usually the simplest to avoid. For instance, crosstalk is very commonly created when connectors are not installed properly at both ends of the cable. Crosstalk is the effect we get when electromagnetic energy from one cable leaves an imprint on adjacent cables. (You’ll often see this referred to as “noise.”)This usually isn’t a problem, however, since we twist wires inside Ethernet cable to cancel out this effect. So how, then, does crosstalk become such a problem?
Saturday, July 30, 2011
RIPv2 Summary
The characteristics of RIPv2 follow:
- Distance-vector protocol.
- Use UDP port 520.
- Makes Automatic summarization on network Class boundary.
- Classless protocol (supports VLSMs).
- Have the power to shut the Auto-summarization And make a configured manual Summarization.
- Supports VLSMs.
- Metric is router hop count.
- Maximum hop count is 15; infinite (unreachable) routes have a metric of 16.
- Periodic route updates sent every 30 seconds to multicast address 224.0.0.9.
- 25 routes per RIP message (24 if authentication is used).
- Invalid route marked after 180 sec.
- Flush timer is 280 sec.
- Hold-down timer 180 sec.
- Supports authentication.
- Implements split horizon with poison reverse.
- Implements triggered updates.
- Subnet mask included in route entry.
- Administrative distance for RIPv2 is 120.
- Used in small, flat networks or at the edge of larger networks.
RIPv2 Convergence
The steps for RIPv2 convergence are as follows:
1- When the local router sees a connected route disappear, it sends a
Flash update and removes the route entry from its table. This is
Called a triggered update with poison reverse.
2- The receiving routers send a Flash update and put the affected route
in holddown.
3- The originating router queries its neighbor (DC) for alternative routes.
If the neighbor has an alternative route, it is sent; otherwise, the
Poisoned route is sent.
4- The originating router installs the best alternative route that it
hears because it has purged the original routes, and Send the new updates in
its periodic routing update timer (30 sec).
5- Routers that are in holddown ignore only the alternative route.
6- When the other routers emerge from holddown, they will accept
the alternative route.
7- Convergence takes the time for detection, plus holddown, plus the
number of routing updates (equal to the hop-count diameter of the network).
This could take a long time.
RIP v2 Configuration
config)# router rip
conf-router)# version 2
conf-router)# no auto-summary
conf-router)# network < classfull Net ID>
conf-router)#passive-interface
conf-router)#maximum –paths (Up to 6 Links for load sharing on a R.B basis, Over equal metric paths default =is 4 paths)
conf-if)# no ip split-horizon (Disables it from a specific interface)
c
onf-router)#distance (Define an administrative distance, default =120)
conf-router)# timers basic < update - invalid –holdown –flush – sleep > (Adjust timers in sec , Sleeptime is a timer used to specify a period, in milliseconds, to delay a regular routing update after receiving a triggered update.)
conf-router)# neighbor < ip add> (Because RIP is a broadcast protocol you may configure RIP to exchange routing information in a Point-Point non-broadcast network such as Frame Relay. In this type of network, RIP must be informed of neighbor RIP routers, Also When it is used in combination with the passive-interface cmd, routing information can be Only exchanged between the router and this nei Ex. Unix server on a LAN )
conf-router)#validate-update-source (This command is applicable only to RIP and IGRP. The software ensures that the source IP address of incoming routing updates is on the same IP network as one of the addresses defined for the receiving interface. Disabling split horizon on the incoming interface will also cause the system to perform this validation check. For unnumbered IP interfaces (interfaces configured as IP unnumbered), no checking is performed. )
conf-router)# no auto-summary
conf-if )# ip summary-address rip < Net ID + mask>
Show Commands
# sh ip route
# sh ip route rip
# sh ip route < Net ID >
# sh ip rip database
# sh ip protocols
#debug ip rip
#debug ip rip events
# no debug all
Hope this might be usefull
- Distance-vector protocol.
- Use UDP port 520.
- Makes Automatic summarization on network Class boundary.
- Classless protocol (supports VLSMs).
- Have the power to shut the Auto-summarization And make a configured manual Summarization.
- Supports VLSMs.
- Metric is router hop count.
- Maximum hop count is 15; infinite (unreachable) routes have a metric of 16.
- Periodic route updates sent every 30 seconds to multicast address 224.0.0.9.
- 25 routes per RIP message (24 if authentication is used).
- Invalid route marked after 180 sec.
- Flush timer is 280 sec.
- Hold-down timer 180 sec.
- Supports authentication.
- Implements split horizon with poison reverse.
- Implements triggered updates.
- Subnet mask included in route entry.
- Administrative distance for RIPv2 is 120.
- Used in small, flat networks or at the edge of larger networks.
RIPv2 Convergence
The steps for RIPv2 convergence are as follows:
1- When the local router sees a connected route disappear, it sends a
Flash update and removes the route entry from its table. This is
Called a triggered update with poison reverse.
2- The receiving routers send a Flash update and put the affected route
in holddown.
3- The originating router queries its neighbor (DC) for alternative routes.
If the neighbor has an alternative route, it is sent; otherwise, the
Poisoned route is sent.
4- The originating router installs the best alternative route that it
hears because it has purged the original routes, and Send the new updates in
its periodic routing update timer (30 sec).
5- Routers that are in holddown ignore only the alternative route.
6- When the other routers emerge from holddown, they will accept
the alternative route.
7- Convergence takes the time for detection, plus holddown, plus the
number of routing updates (equal to the hop-count diameter of the network).
This could take a long time.
RIP v2 Configuration
config)# router rip
conf-router)# version 2
conf-router)# no auto-summary
conf-router)# network < classfull Net ID>
conf-router)#passive-interface
conf-router)#maximum –paths (Up to 6 Links for load sharing on a R.B basis, Over equal metric paths default =is 4 paths)
conf-if)# no ip split-horizon (Disables it from a specific interface)
c
onf-router)#distance (Define an administrative distance, default =120)
conf-router)# timers basic < update - invalid –holdown –flush – sleep > (Adjust timers in sec , Sleeptime is a timer used to specify a period, in milliseconds, to delay a regular routing update after receiving a triggered update.)
conf-router)# neighbor < ip add> (Because RIP is a broadcast protocol you may configure RIP to exchange routing information in a Point-Point non-broadcast network such as Frame Relay. In this type of network, RIP must be informed of neighbor RIP routers, Also When it is used in combination with the passive-interface cmd, routing information can be Only exchanged between the router and this nei Ex. Unix server on a LAN )
conf-router)#validate-update-source (This command is applicable only to RIP and IGRP. The software ensures that the source IP address of incoming routing updates is on the same IP network as one of the addresses defined for the receiving interface. Disabling split horizon on the incoming interface will also cause the system to perform this validation check. For unnumbered IP interfaces (interfaces configured as IP unnumbered), no checking is performed. )
conf-router)# no auto-summary
conf-if )# ip summary-address rip < Net ID + mask>
Show Commands
# sh ip route
# sh ip route rip
# sh ip route < Net ID >
# sh ip rip database
# sh ip protocols
#debug ip rip
#debug ip rip events
# no debug all
Hope this might be usefull
EIGRP Summary
EIGRP Summary
The characteristics of EIGRP follow:
- Hybrid routing protocol (distance vector that has link-state protocol characteristics).
- Use DUAL, first proposed by E. W. Dijkstra and C. S. Scholten, to perform distributed shortest-path routing while maintaining freedom from loops at every instant. Although many researchers have contributed to the development of DUAL, the most prominent work is that of J. J. Garcia-Luna-Aceves.
- Cisco Proprietary created in 1994.
- First released in IOS 9.21
- Uses IP protocol 88.
- Makes Automatic summarization on network Class boundary.
- Classless protocol (supports VLSM).
- Have the power to shut the Auto-summarization And make a configured manual Summarization.
- Default composite metric of bandwidth and delay.
- You can factor load, MTU and reliability into the metric.
- Eigrp metric is the same as IGRP*256, It uses the smallest B.W,Reliablity,Load & MTU with the Comulative delay upon the path…..The MTU doesn’t actually used in the Metric calculations, But is included in the EIGRP Routing updates.
- Sends route updates to multicast address 224.0.0.10, and nei. Reply’s back with Unicast Address.
- Sends non-periodic, partial, and bounded updates.
- Send Hello packets every 5 sec. and Hold down timer is 15 sec.
CCNP-642-801 Lab
Network Discovery-Router 1
Network Discovery-Router 2
Network Discovery-Router 3
Configuring Single Area OSPF 1
Configuring Single Area OSPF 2
Config OSPF NBMA Environment
Config OSPF NBMA Network
Config Multi-area OSPF Network
Verify MultiMulti-area OSPF Network
Stub Areas
Totally Stubby Areas
Not So Stubby Areas-Creation
Virtual Links Setup 1
Virtual Links Setup 2
IP Helper-Adress Command Redundant EIGRP Routers A-C
Redundant EIGRP Routers D&E
Redundant EIGRP Testing
EIGRP Across Frame-Relay I
EIGRP Across Frame-Relay II
Configuring BGP
BGP Route Reflection AS 100
IGRP integration
Directed-Broadcast Handling
Configuring Basic BGP
Creating a BGP Router Reflector
Configuring BGP Connection Weight
Modifying Redist Admin Distances
Redistribution with Router Filters
Router Map Creation
Network Discovery-Router 2
Network Discovery-Router 3
Configuring Single Area OSPF 1
Configuring Single Area OSPF 2
Config OSPF NBMA Environment
Config OSPF NBMA Network
Config Multi-area OSPF Network
Verify MultiMulti-area OSPF Network
Stub Areas
Totally Stubby Areas
Not So Stubby Areas-Creation
Virtual Links Setup 1
Virtual Links Setup 2
IP Helper-Adress Command Redundant EIGRP Routers A-C
Redundant EIGRP Routers D&E
Redundant EIGRP Testing
EIGRP Across Frame-Relay I
EIGRP Across Frame-Relay II
Configuring BGP
BGP Route Reflection AS 100
IGRP integration
Directed-Broadcast Handling
Configuring Basic BGP
Creating a BGP Router Reflector
Configuring BGP Connection Weight
Modifying Redist Admin Distances
Redistribution with Router Filters
Router Map Creation
CCNA1 Final latest version ~100/100
CCNA1 Final latest version ~100/100
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CCNA 1 Final
1.Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)?
¨ transceiver
¨ router
¨ switch
¨ hub
¨ media
2.Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
¡ 3
¡ 5
¡ 6
¡ 7
¡ 8
¡ 9
3.Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?
¡ Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?
¡ The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
¡ The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
¡ The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
¡ The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.
5.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?
¡ session
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
¡ physical
6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
¡ three
¡ four
¡ five
¡ six
¡ seven
¡ eight
7.A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
¨ After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds
¨ When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit
¨ When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.
8.Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)
¨ switch
¨ hub
¨ bridge
¨ router
¨ repeater
9.What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
¨ Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
¨ Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
¨ Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
¨ Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
¨ Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
¨ Existing network topology must support shared media.
10.Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)
¨ the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
¨ a unique host IP address
¨ the IP address of Switch 1
¨ the default gateway address
¨ the MAC address of Host C
¨ the subnet mask for the LAN LAN
11.Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?
¡ 11101000
¡ 11110100
¡ 11111000
¡ 11111010
12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29? 223.168.17.167/29？
¡ host address
¡ multicast address
¡ broadcast address
¡ subnetwork address
13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)
¨ Layer 1 bit pattern
¨ Layer 2 frames
¨ Layer 3 packets
¨ Layer 4 segments
¨ Layer 5 -7 data
14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?
¡ 6 networks / 32 hosts
¡ 14 networks / 14 hosts
¡ 30 networks / 6 hosts
¡ 62 networks / 2 hosts
16.Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?
¡ 255.255.224.0
¡ 255.255.240.0
¡ 255.255.248.0
¡ 255.255.252.0
¡ 255.255.254.0
¡ 255.255.255.0
17.A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
¡ 172.31.0.0
¡ 172.31.160.0
¡ 172.31.192.0
¡ 172.31.248.0
¡ 172.31.192.160
¡ 172.31.192.248
18.What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
¨ exchanges datagrams unreliably
¨ is used to send IP error messages
¨ forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
¨ creates a virtual session between end-user applications
¨ carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
¨ is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination
19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?
¡ FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
¡ FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
¡ The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
¡ The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.
20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
¨ UDP
¨ FTP
¨ IP
¨ SMTP
¨ TCP
21.Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
¨ Ethernet
¨ DSL
¨ Token Ring
¨ Frame Relay
¨ FDDI
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
¡ data, segments, frames, packets, bits
¡ data, packets, segments, frames, bits
¡ data, segments, packets, frames, bits
¡ data, packets, frames, segments, bits
23.Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
¡ Both cables are acceptable.
¡ The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
¡ The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
¡ The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
¡ rollover
¡ console
¡ crossover
¡ straight-through
25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
¡ 1 and 2; 4 and 5
¡ 1 and 2; 3 and 6
¡ 3 and 6; 7 and 8
¡ 4 and 5; 7 and 8
26.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
¡ crossover B- straight-through C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through
¡ crossover B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiberE-crossover
¡ straight-through B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through
¡ fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
¡ straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
¡ crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
27.Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
¡ console
¡ rollover
¡ crossover
¡ straight-through
28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?
¡ Cable A
¡ Cable B
¡ Cable C
¡ Cable D
29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)
¡ 255.0.0.0
¡ 255.254.0.0
¡ 255.224.0.0
¡ 255.255.0.0
¡ 255.255.252.0
¡ 255.255.255.192
30.What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?
¡ static
¡ dynamic
¡ interior
¡ exterior
31. Which statement describes a star topology?
¡ Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
¡ Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
¡ Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
¡ Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.
32.Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)
¨ link A
¨ link B
¨ link C
¨ link D
¨ link E
33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?
¡ The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
¡ The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
¡ The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
¡ The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.
34.Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)
¨ 192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
¨ 192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
¨ 1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
¨ 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
¨ The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
¨ To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.
35.Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
¡ physical
36.Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
¡ 00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
¡ B0-D0-7F-F7-46
¡ 00-0F-24-85-75-C0
¡ 00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
¡ 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
¡ 00-08-A3-B6-CE-03
37.Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?
¡ hub
¡ router
¡ bridge
¡ access point
¡ Layer 2 switch
38.When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
¡ network
¡ application
¡ session
¡ transport
39.A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?
¡ 255.255.240.0
¡ 255.255.248.0
¡ 255.255.254.0
¡ 255.255.255.0
¡ 255.255.255.128
¡ 255.255.255.248
40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?
¡ Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN. LAN
¡ The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
¡ A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
¡ The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.
41.Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?
¡ router
¡ switch
¡ bridge
¡ repeater
42.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
¡ coax cable
¡ rollover cable
¡ crossover cable
¡ straight-through cable
43.A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?
¡ The switch drops the frame.
¡ The switch sends the frame out port 3.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.
44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
¡ the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
¡ the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
¡ a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
¡ an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
45.Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
¡ Layer 1
¡ Layer 2
¡ Layer 3
¡ Layer 4
46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?
47.Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?
¡ It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
¡ It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
¡ It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
¡ It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.
48.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)
o Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
o Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
o Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
¡ application
¡ session
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
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CCNA 1 Final
1.Which devices segment collision domains? (Choose two.)?
¨ transceiver
¨ router
¨ switch
¨ hub
¨ media
2.Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are present in the topology?
¡ 3
¡ 5
¡ 6
¡ 7
¡ 8
¡ 9
3.Refer to the exhibit. An instructor in the network class has given the students the network diagram and asks the students to select the appropriate network devices. The goals are to provide a collision-free LAN environment and to provide Internet connectivity. What is the correct design?
¡ Replace Box 1 with a hub and Box 2 with a router.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a bridge.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a Layer 2 switch and Box 2 with a router.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a router and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
¡ Replace Box 1 with a bridge and Box 2 with a Layer 2 switch.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator attempts to increase the available bandwidth for workstation A by setting the NIC to full-duplex mode. After the configuration is changed, there are increased collisions and errors occurring. Why is this occurring in the network?
¡ The NIC is no longer detecting collisions.
¡ The switch will not support full-duplex mode.
¡ The hub will be continually producing a jam signal.
¡ The cabling will not support bidirectional transmissions.
5.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is testing a connectivity issue in the network. The administrator discovers that host A cannot communicate with host B, host C, or RouterA. A ping command on host A to 127.0.0.1 succeeds. The NIC link indicator on host A is illuminated. Temporarily, the administrator removes the cable from host A and uses the LAN cable from host B to connect from host A to port 1 on the switch. While using the substitute cable, host A can communicate with host C and RouterA. At which layer of the OSI model was the problem occurring?
¡ session
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
¡ physical
6. How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram?
¡ three
¡ four
¡ five
¡ six
¡ seven
¡ eight
7.A collision has occurred on an Ethernet network. Which three statements explain the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
¨ After the jam signal, all transmission stops for a random period.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission immediately.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts stop transmission after eight microseconds
¨ When the backoff period expires, the hosts involved in the collision have priority to transmit
¨ When the backoff period expires, each host checks to see whether the networking media is idle and then attempts to transmit.
¨ When the collision is detected, the hosts continue to transmit using a jam pattern for a short time to ensure that all hosts detect the collision.
8.Which of the following devices extend a collision domain? (Choose two.)
¨ switch
¨ hub
¨ bridge
¨ router
¨ repeater
9.What should a network administrator consider when migrating to Gigabit Ethernet architecture from Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
¨ Existing NICs might need to be upgraded.
¨ Existing switches might need to be upgraded.
¨ Existing NICs must support half-duplex mode.
¨ Existing UTP wiring must be replaced with fiber.
¨ Existing UTP must be tested for CAT 5e compatibility.
¨ Existing network topology must support shared media.
10.Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the Host C? (Choose three.)
¨ the MAC address of RTA router interface connected to Switch 1
¨ a unique host IP address
¨ the IP address of Switch 1
¨ the default gateway address
¨ the MAC address of Host C
¨ the subnet mask for the LAN LAN
11.Which binary number is a representation of the decimal number 248?
¡ 11101000
¡ 11110100
¡ 11111000
¡ 11111010
12. Which type of address is 223.168.17.167/29? 223.168.17.167/29？
¡ host address
¡ multicast address
¡ broadcast address
¡ subnetwork address
13. Workstation A sends data to workstation B. What will have to be altered as the data passes through the router? (Choose two.)
¨ Layer 1 bit pattern
¨ Layer 2 frames
¨ Layer 3 packets
¨ Layer 4 segments
¨ Layer 5 -7 data
14. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.224
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.0.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.192.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0
¡ 172.16.128.0 255.255.255.192
15. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.99.0 subnetted with a /29 mask?
¡ 6 networks / 32 hosts
¡ 14 networks / 14 hosts
¡ 30 networks / 6 hosts
¡ 62 networks / 2 hosts
16.Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork in the exhibit has been assigned the IP address 172.20.0.0. What would be the appropriate subnet mask to maximize the number of networks available for future growth?
¡ 255.255.224.0
¡ 255.255.240.0
¡ 255.255.248.0
¡ 255.255.252.0
¡ 255.255.254.0
¡ 255.255.255.0
17.A NIC of a computer has been assigned an IP address of 172.31.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
¡ 172.31.0.0
¡ 172.31.160.0
¡ 172.31.192.0
¡ 172.31.248.0
¡ 172.31.192.160
¡ 172.31.192.248
18.What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
¨ exchanges datagrams unreliably
¨ is used to send IP error messages
¨ forces the retransmission of unacknowledged packets
¨ creates a virtual session between end-user applications
¨ carries the IP address of the destination host in the TCP header
¨ is responsible for breaking messages into segments and reassembling them at their destination
19. A network user is using the FTP protocol to transfer data from the local host to an FTP server. The local host is also using the SNMP protocol to report the system status to the network management system. Which statement describes the communication from the host?
¡ FTP and SNMP will use the same port number.
¡ FTP uses TCP to establish a session before any data is transferred.
¡ The UDP session will reorder the SNMP data as it is received by the network management system.
¡ The TCP protocol for the FTP transfer will use a random destination port number to the FTP server.
20. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
¨ UDP
¨ FTP
¨ IP
¨ SMTP
¨ TCP
21.Which technologies are considered to be WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
¨ Ethernet
¨ DSL
¨ Token Ring
¨ Frame Relay
¨ FDDI
22. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
¡ data, segments, frames, packets, bits
¡ data, packets, segments, frames, bits
¡ data, segments, packets, frames, bits
¡ data, packets, frames, segments, bits
23.Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
¡ Both cables are acceptable.
¡ The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
¡ The cable in Graphic A should be used in the more critical network segments.
¡ The cable in Graphic A is preferred because it will be easier to crimp the connector.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Switch1 to Switch2?
¡ rollover
¡ console
¡ crossover
¡ straight-through
25. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
¡ 1 and 2; 4 and 5
¡ 1 and 2; 3 and 6
¡ 3 and 6; 7 and 8
¡ 4 and 5; 7 and 8
26.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cabling should be used at each of the connection points shown?
¡ crossover B- straight-through C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through
¡ crossover B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiberE-crossover
¡ straight-through B-crossover C-straight-through D-fiber E-straight-through
¡ fiberB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-crossoverE-straight-through
¡ straight-throughB-crossoverC-crossoverD-fiberE-straight-through
¡ crossoverB-crossoverC-straight-throughD-fiberE-straight-through
27.Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?
¡ console
¡ rollover
¡ crossover
¡ straight-through
28. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a console cable used with Cisco devices?
¡ Cable A
¡ Cable B
¡ Cable C
¡ Cable D
29. Which subnet masks would be valid for a subnetted Class B address? (Choose two.)
¡ 255.0.0.0
¡ 255.254.0.0
¡ 255.224.0.0
¡ 255.255.0.0
¡ 255.255.252.0
¡ 255.255.255.192
30.What type of routing is it when the network administrator manually configures a route?
¡ static
¡ dynamic
¡ interior
¡ exterior
31. Which statement describes a star topology?
¡ Each host in the network is connected to a backbone cable that is terminated at both ends.
¡ Each host is connected to a hub or switch, either of which acts as a central point for all network connections.
¡ Each host is directly connected to two other hosts to form a long chain of hosts.
¡ Each host has a connection to all other hosts in the network.
32.Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate WAN links? (Choose three.)
¨ link A
¨ link B
¨ link C
¨ link D
¨ link E
33. A technician needs to connect a FastEthernet port from a router to a FastEthernet port on a switch. The graphic shows the RJ-45 cable ends for a patch cable. What result can be expected if this cable is used for the link?
¡ The cable will be able to pass traffic between the devices.
¡ The cable has reversed-pairs, which will degrade the signal quality.
¡ The cable has split-pairs, which will increase crosstalk and create an unreliable link.
¡ The cable has all the wires reversed, which will prevent the link lights from indicating that there is link.
34.Refer to the received frame in the exhibit. In what two ways is the information from the received frame used by a switch? (Choose two.)
¨ 192.168.10.5 is used to create an ARP request.
¨ 192.168.10.5 is used to build the forwarding table.
¨ 1234.5678.1abc is stripped from the frame header.
¨ 192.168.10.11 is left intact as the frame is forwarded.
¨ The switch compares 192.168.10.11 to the addresses in the routing table to make the forwarding decision.
¨ To make the forwarding decision, the switch looks in its switch table for address aaaa.bbbb.cccc.
35.Which layer of the OSI model defines the process of adding the source and destination IP address to a data packet?
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
¡ physical
36.Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
¡ 00-06-5B-88-DF-C3
¡ B0-D0-7F-F7-46
¡ 00-0F-24-85-75-C0
¡ 00-0B-E5-64-BD-44
¡ 00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
¡ 00-08-A3-B6-CE-03
37.Refer to the exhibit. What device does Device X represent in the graphic to allow PC1 to ping PC4?
¡ hub
¡ router
¡ bridge
¡ access point
¡ Layer 2 switch
38.When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
¡ network
¡ application
¡ session
¡ transport
39.A company has the following addressing scheme requirements: -currently has 25 subnets -uses a Class B IP address -has a maximum of 300 computers on any network segment -needs to leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnetWhat subnet mask is appropriate to use in this company?
¡ 255.255.240.0
¡ 255.255.248.0
¡ 255.255.254.0
¡ 255.255.255.0
¡ 255.255.255.128
¡ 255.255.255.248
40. What can be verified by successfully pinging the reserved loopback address on a host?
¡ Connectivity exists between two hosts on the LAN. LAN
¡ The TCP/IP stack of the local host is installed correctly.
¡ A connection exists between a host and the default gateway.
¡ The route a packet takes from the local host to a remote host is valid.
41.Refer to the exhibit. A company needs to attach workstation E at a point 150 meters from an existing hub. What device should be placed at location D to allow the new host to connect to the network with the least amount of latency?
¡ router
¡ switch
¡ bridge
¡ repeater
42.Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
¡ coax cable
¡ rollover cable
¡ crossover cable
¡ straight-through cable
43.A simplified CAM table for Switch1 is shown in the exhibit. If host A sends a frame with a destination MAC address of 66C, how does the switch process this frame?
¡ The switch drops the frame.
¡ The switch sends the frame out port 3.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, and 4.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 2, 3, and 4.
¡ The switch sends the frame out ports 1, 2, 3, and 4.
44. Which of the following increases the potential for a collision to occur?
¡ the use of an active hub instead of an intelligent hub
¡ the use of an intelligent hub instead of an active hub
¡ a reduction in the number of devices attached to the hub
¡ an increase in the number of devices attached to the hub
45.Refer to the exhibit. Host A has been added to the network. However, host A cannot communicate with the server B or the Internet. All cables have been tested and are functioning to standards. At which layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring?
¡ Layer 1
¡ Layer 2
¡ Layer 3
¡ Layer 4
46. A workstation is browsing a web server. What will be the partial contents of the segment sent from the workstation to the web server?
47.Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted address?
¡ It allows the NIC to communicate with other devices on the same network.
¡ It identifies which part of the IP address is to be considered the network portion.
¡ It provides an address to which all packets that do not have a specific route are sent.
¡ It uniquely identifies the NIC to the free token that is passed on the Ethernet network.
48.Refer to the exhibit. Host A is being manually configured for connectivity to the LAN. Which two addressing scheme combinations are possible configurations that can be applied to the host for connectivity? (Choose two.)
o Address - 192.168.1.14 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.45 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.32 Gateway - 192.168.1.33
o Address - 192.168.1.82 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
o Address - 192.168.1.63 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
o Address - 192.168.1.70 Gateway - 192.168.1.65
49. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
¡ application
¡ session
¡ transport
¡ network
¡ data link
Sunday, July 24, 2011
CCNA Semester 2 final exam latest version
1
Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
(true answer)the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
(true answer)the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
2
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
(true answer)R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30. (true answer) R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.
R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24.
R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface.
Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
(true answer)the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
(true answer)the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
2
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route information by R1? (Choose two.)
(true answer)R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30. (true answer) R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.
R1 will forward the summarized route information for network 192.168.100.0/24.
R1 will forward route information for subnet 10.10.10.0/30 out the serial interface.
CCNA 4 Final latest (7/31/2009)
1.
What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
check sum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing
2.
While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
3.
Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
check sum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing
2.
While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
3.
Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
Take Assessment - Final Exam - CCNA 3 Switching Basics and Intermediate Routing
CCNA3 Final latest version
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CCNA 1 Final (Latest version 100%)
1
Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for
192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0
2
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list
correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
Practice - Lab - Learning CCNA
Saturday, July 23, 2011
CCNA Semester 4
- CCNA 4 - Final Exam (10)
- CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 7 (100%) (1)
- CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1 (100%) (1)
- CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2 (100%) (1)
- CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3 (100%) (1)
- CCNA4 (24)
- CCNA4 Chapter 1 (1)
- CCNA4 Chapter 2 (1)
- CCNA4 Chapter 3 (1)
- CCNA4 Chapter 4 (2)
- CCNA4 Chapter 5 (2)
- CCNA4 Chapter 6 (2)
- CCNA4 Chapter 7 (3)
- CCNA4 Chapter 8 (1)
- CCNA4 Chapter 9 (1)
- CCNA4 FINAL (1)
CCNA Semester 3
CCNA Semester 2
- CCNA2 (18)
- CCNA2 Chapter 1 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 10 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 11 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 2 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 3 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 4 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 5 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 6 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 7 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 8 (1)
- CCNA2 Chapter 9 (1)
- CCNA Practice Certification Exam 2 (1)
- CCNA 2 - Final Exam (7)
- CCNA 2 - Final Exam.CCNA2 (1)
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Hardening Cisco IOS Devices
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)
1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)
1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
CCNA 2 FINAL (Latest version 100/100)
1
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
(true answer) The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs.
2
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
(true answer) It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
3
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
(true answer) Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.
4
Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
(true answer) Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.
Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.
(true answer) The shortest path first algorithm is used.
Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
(true answer) All routes are stable.
(true answer) The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
(true answer) The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs.
2
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
(true answer) It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
3
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
(true answer) Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.
4
Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
(true answer) Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.
Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.
(true answer) The shortest path first algorithm is used.
Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.
5
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
(true answer) All routes are stable.
(true answer) The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.
Take Assessment - ENetwork Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Network Fundamentals (Version 4.0) => latest version
1
Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for
192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0
2
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list
correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
CCNA 2 – Final 94,8% – New
1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
Thursday, July 7, 2011
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 6 (100%)
1. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
4. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.
5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
4. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?
The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.
5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?
Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 5 (100%)
1. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
shared
edge-type
point-to-point
2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
designated
3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
5. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.
shared
edge-type
point-to-point
2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
designated
3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?
The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
5. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.
Wednesday, July 6, 2011
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 4 (100%)
1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.
2.
What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain
3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
domain name
domain password
version number
4. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.
2.
What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain
3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
domain name
domain password
version number
4. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?
It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.
Tuesday, July 5, 2011
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 3 (100%)
1. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
C, E
3. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
C, E
3. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.
4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 2 (100%)
1. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
global configuration mode
3. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
4. Where is the startup configuration stored?
NVRAM
5. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
global configuration mode
3. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
4. Where is the startup configuration stored?
NVRAM
5. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
Monday, July 4, 2011
CCNA lab
CCNA Certification
The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This new curriculum includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills. This new curriculum also includes (but is not limited to) the use of these protocols: IP, Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), Serial Line Interface Protocol Frame Relay, Routing Information Protocol Version 2 (RIPv2),VLANs, Ethernet, access control lists (ACLs)
* 1 Console Login * 2 Router Configuration
* 3 Examine the Router
* 4 Copy to a TFTP server
* 5 Copy from TFTP server
* 6a Clear the backup config
* 6b Saving the backup configuration
* 7 Copy to NVRAM
* 8 Initial router configuration
* 9 Initial Switch Configuration
* 10 RIP routing
* 11 IGRP routing
* 12 Create Accesslist
* 13 IPX Access List Security
* 14 IPX router configuration
* 15 IPX SAP filtering
* 16 Limitting VTY address
* 17 Load 2600 OS
* 18 Navigating the IOS
* 19 Password recovery
* 20 Telnet to a remote Router
Sunday, July 3, 2011
CCNA4 FINAL 100/100
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)
1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)
1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)
Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.
5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?
close to the destination
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)
1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?
The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.
5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.
NEW CCNA3 FINAL
1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
***forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
2.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23,the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18
***The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18
3. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the
remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch,but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions?(Choose two.)
Configure an IP address on the new switch
***Configure the existing VTP domain on the new switch
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode
***Configure the new switch as a VTP client
Enable VTP pruning
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1
***Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs
discard the frame
forward the frame out port 2
forward the frame out port 3
forward the frame out all ports
***forward the frame out all ports except port 3
add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
2.Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23,the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18
***The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18
3. A new switch is to be added to an existing network in a remote office. The network administrator does not want the technicians in the
remote office to be able to add new VLANs to the switch,but the switch should receive VLAN updates from the VTP domain. Which two steps must be performed to configure VTP on the new switch to meet these conditions?(Choose two.)
Configure an IP address on the new switch
***Configure the existing VTP domain on the new switch
Configure all ports of both switches to access mode
***Configure the new switch as a VTP client
Enable VTP pruning
4. Refer to the exhibit. What is true of the configuration of switch S1?
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3
Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 have been configured with the switchport mode access command
Untagged frames received on ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 will be placed on VLAN 1
***Switch ports Fa0/1 and Fa0/3 are configured to carry data from multiple VLANs
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 1
1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM
4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
analog dialup
5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM
4. A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company?
analog dialup
5. What is an advantage of packet-switched technology over circuit-switched technology?
Packet-switched networks can efficiently use multiple routes inside a service provider network.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 3
1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
3. What best describes the use of a data-link connection identifier (DLCI)?
locally significant address used to identify a virtual circuit
4. What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network?
virtual circuit
5. Which two items allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
Inverse ARP
LMI status messages
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 2
1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.
4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.
5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
3. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true regarding the output shown?
The PAP passwords did not match, so the routers are trying CHAP authentication.
4. Why are serial connections preferred over parallel connections for long transmission lengths?
Parallel connections are subject to clock skew and to crosstalk between wires.
5. Which two statements are true about time-division multiplexing (TDM)? (Choose two.)
Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.
Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.
CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 7
1. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?
probe request
2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Name (SSID)
probe request
2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
4. Refer to the exhibit. When configuring the wireless access point, which setting does the network administrator use to configure the unique identifier that client devices use to distinguish this wireless network from others?
Network Name (SSID)
CCNA Exploration 1 - Module 2 Exam Answers Version 4.0 100%
1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
• Network
• Transport
• Physical
• Data Link
• Session
2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
• supports error detection
• ensures ordered arrival of data
• provides delivery to correct destination
• identifies the devices on the local network
• assists intermediary devices with processing and path selection
3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?
• No address is added.
• The logical address is added.
• The physical address is added.
• The process port number is added.
4. What device is considered an intermediary device?
• file server
• IP phone
• laptop
• printer
• switch
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