CCNA lab

CCNA Certification

The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This new curriculum includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills. This new curriculum also includes (but is not limited to) the use of these protocols: IP, Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), Serial Line Interface Protocol Frame Relay, Routing Information Protocol Version 2 (RIPv2),VLANs, Ethernet, access control lists (ACLs)

    * 1 Console Login
    * 2 Router Configuration
    * 3 Examine the Router
    * 4 Copy to a TFTP server
    * 5 Copy from TFTP server
    * 6a Clear the backup config
    * 6b Saving the backup configuration
    * 7 Copy to NVRAM
    * 8 Initial router configuration
    * 9 Initial Switch Configuration
    * 10 RIP routing
    * 11 IGRP routing
    * 12 Create Accesslist
    * 13 IPX Access List Security
    * 14 IPX router configuration
    * 15 IPX SAP filtering
    * 16 Limitting VTY address
    * 17 Load 2600 OS
    * 18 Navigating the IOS
    * 19 Password recovery
    * 20 Telnet to a remote Router

CCNA4 FINAL 100/100

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design
  expected performance under normal operating conditions

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest

1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

16

4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.

5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths
modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?

Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.

5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?

The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 5 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

protocol suite
source address
destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

4 .Which two statements are correct about extended ACLs? (Choose two)

Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.
  Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.

5. Where should a standard access control list be placed?

  close to the destination

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 4 (100%)

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What is accomplished when both commands are configured on the router?

The commands disable the services such as echo, discard, and chargen on the router to prevent security vulnerabilities.

5. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
  Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.